Group: sci.physics.particle
From: Igor
Date: Friday, February 29, 2008 12:04 PM
Subject: Re: Why does light bend under gravity?

On Feb 29, 2:35=A0am, "" <...@> wrote:
> On Feb 28, 11:19=A0am, "Artful" wrote:
>
>
>
>
>
> > "" <...@> wrote in message
>
> >news:27568a56-0c3f-443e-acdb-ba355cffb9e3@...=

>
> > > so thje formula shoul not be
>
> > > E=3Dgamma m =A0 times c^2
>
> > > but ....
>
> > > E/Gamma =3D mc^2 !!
>
> > That is the same formula .. just written slightly differently.
>
> > > AND m REMAINS =A0 =A0 COOOOOOOONSTANT =A0 !! =A0(:-)
>
> > It is constant 9assuming you are talking about the one object) in both
> > formulas. =A0'm' means mass (rest mass or invariant mass) .. it doesn't
> > change. =A0rewriting the formula does not make any difference whatsoever=
..
> > except that the formula you propose is less useful in that neither side
> > directly gives you a meaningful value (ie most useful formulas have a si=
ngle
> > symbol on one side, and an expression on the other side that calculates =
the
> > value for that =A0formula.
>
> ----------------
> thas exactly the point !!
>
> =A0IT IS THE SAME FORMULA WITH A BASICALLY
> DIFFERENT PHYSICAL UNDERSTANDING!!

And you're physical understanding is certainly different.