Group: sci.physics
From: "Y.Porat"
Date: Friday, February 29, 2008 1:35 AM
Subject: Re: Why does light bend under gravity?

On Feb 28, 11:19=A0am, "Artful" wrote:
> "" <...@> wrote in message
>
> news:27568a56-0c3f-443e-acdb-ba355cffb9e3@...
>
> > so thje formula shoul not be
>
> > E=3Dgamma m =A0 times c^2
>
> > but ....
>
> > E/Gamma =3D mc^2 !!
>
> That is the same formula .. just written slightly differently.
>
> > AND m REMAINS =A0 =A0 COOOOOOOONSTANT =A0 !! =A0(:-)
>
> It is constant 9assuming you are talking about the one object) in both
> formulas. =A0'm' means mass (rest mass or invariant mass) .. it doesn't
> change. =A0rewriting the formula does not make any difference whatsoever .=
.
> except that the formula you propose is less useful in that neither side
> directly gives you a meaningful value (ie most useful formulas have a sing=
le
> symbol on one side, and an expression on the other side that calculates th=
e
> value for that =A0formula.

----------------
thas exactly the point !!

IT IS THE SAME FORMULA WITH A BASICALLY
DIFFERENT PHYSICAL UNDERSTANDING!!

at least you saw that it can be interpreatted in two ways !!
(not mathematically but PHYSICALLY)

and that6 why i always claime
that one of the disasters that fell on modern physics is
that methematicians who have no physics clue
and touch
too over physics

ATB

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