Group: sci.physics.research
From: Benjamin
Date: Saturday, September 08, 2007 12:56 PM
Subject: Re: Question on EPR and arXiv:

Dear Jim,
I reported this to the author.
He wants to thank you very much.

He said, the article will be extensively rewitten or, if this is not
possible completely be withdrawn.

To the factor 2 in their correlation coefficient:

It seems to me. the authors consider a model, where the particles are
ejected totally random from the source. That means it is possibble, that
the source ejects two particles at one detector only. If you measure at
one detector only, you catch them all. But if you measure at two
detectors, your coincidence device makes it sure that you detect them
only when one goes at detector 1 and the other at detector 2.
Therefore they need an additional factor in the correlation coefficient.

This comes most strikingly out at Page 7 of their Article. They define

A=sqrt(2)(P_1(up)-P_1(down)
B=sqrt(2)(P_2(up)-P_2(down)

Where as Bell had defined in His Article Bertlmans Socks and the nature
of reality, equation 18 ff:
> A=P_1(up)-P_1(down)
> B=P_2(up)-P_2(down)

And one can see below in Bells Text, that his famous inequality rests
solely on the assumption that, since P_1,P_2 are probabilities, |A|<1
and |B|<1.

Bell considers only the case where the two particles are sent in
different directions.

However in a stochastic theory, like that of Nelson (or the modification
of Nelsons Theory publisheby the same authors in Annalen der Physik
12,2003), this requirement is not to fullfill since in such a theory the
particles are driven by a stochastic vacuum. It might be, that in an EPR
Experiment both of the particles are sent to detector 1 OR to detector 2
only. And when they arrive, for example, both in P_1 (up) then we have|A|=2.

The experimentalist will, however not notice this situation, since the
coincidence device does not catch these particles. It does only click
when the two particles arrive at both detector 1 and detector 2.

But to model the overall situation to get the correct probabilities one
has to make corrections in the definitions of A and B and, accordingly
of their maximum values and the correlation coefficient.

For the Probabilities P++, P--, P-+, P+- with massive fermions
(discussed by the authors at page 7) Bell has given the quantum
mechanical expectation value in his Bertlmanns socks paper (eq 4) as:

P++=P--=1/2 (sin((a-b)/2)^2
P-+=P+-=1/2-1/2 (sin((a-b)/2)^2

And if I am not mistaken, the authors model for this case gets these
probabilities correct (At least if I calculate them out of their formulas).

Well, nevertheless, the author wote, that he will try to rewrite his
article, or if this is not possible, he will withdraw it.